Assalamalaikum, my Q is about Meher, if the meher is paid in parts and in different currency rather then the original currency of the country where the nikah took place, what rate will be applicable, will the calculation will be made on the current rate when it is given or the rate the time it was when the nikah took place. Kindly explain.
In the name of Allah, the most Beneficent, the most Merciful.
The mahar is one of the rights of the wife and the husband gives it at the time of the marriage ceremony.
Allah (SWA) in the Holy Quran has said “And give the women their dower in good cheer”. (Surah Nisaa v.4)
Mahr is obligatory. Allah (SWA) has used the word “faridah” for it. It means something is fixed, decided and obligatory. It is compulsory for the husband to pay for the mahr unless the wife by her own will and without any pressure forgives the husband in paying for it. (Mazahirul Haqq p.104 v.4)
Regarding your question, the amount of mahr you stipulated at the time of the marriage and whatever the value was at that time, that amount will be obligatory to give. For example, in 1990 you got married and you agreed to pay 100 rupees, so whatever the value of the rupee was in terms of UK pounds in 1990, that amount will be obligatory.
Only Allah Knows Best
Mohammed Tosir Miah
Darul Ifta Birmingham