Fatwa ID: 08068

Answered by: Alimah Shireen Mangera-Badat 

Question:

For a while, my husband was refusing to divorce me, despite us living separately for over a year and him saying he doesn’t see a future with me. He only agreed to put divorce in writing when I found out he was actively looking for a new wife. But wrote the following on paper “[his name] and (my name) have officially ended their marriage.”

He did not put the words divorce or talaq on paper, nor did he say or write anything like “I divorce my wife”. Please can you clarify if this is a valid divorce?

بِسْمِ اللهِ الرَّحْمنِ الرَّحِيْم

In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful

Answer:

Different types of divorce can occur. Without delving into too much detail, divorce generally falls into two main categories, whether declared verbally or through a signed and noted written declaration:

Explicit Divorce (Sareeh): If a husband uses clear and explicit words such as ṭalaq (divorce), the divorce is valid immediately and does not require any specific intention (niyyah).
Implicit Divorce (Kinayah): If the wording is ambiguous or unclear (e.g., “we have ended our marriage”), the husband’s intention (niyyah) becomes essential to determine whether a divorce has taken place.[1]
In the statement written by your husband, “[his name] and [your name] have officially ended their marriage,” the wording is implicit and does not explicitly mention ṭalaq or divorce, therefore falling into the secondary category of Kinayah.

In this situation, his intention must be verified. If he explicitly intended ṭalaq when he wrote or said those words, the divorce would be valid. However, if he denies having such an intention, the statement itself would not automatically constitute a divorce.[2]

You mentioned he was unwilling to divorce earlier but later agreed to write this statement. This could indicate an intention, but this would need to be confirmed by him directly.

Therefore, the validity of the divorce depends on whether the husband intended talaq when using implicit wording. Since the statement does not explicitly mention divorce, the husband’s intention at the time of writing becomes critical. It is advisable to seek clarification from him directly, remembering that for a divorce to take place with implicit words, the intention must be clearly established.

I hope that this answers the question.

Only Allah knows best.

Written by
Alimah Shireen Mangera-Badat
Checked and approved by Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah
Darul Ifta Birmingham

[1] ٢٣٤٦٦ – قالوا: الصريح الأصل، والكناية فرع عليه، ولهذا لا يقع الطلاق بها إلا بقرينة، فإذا كان الصريح يقع به الرجعى، فالكناية أولى
ص4849 – كتاب التجريد للقدوري – مسألة ما يقع بكنايات الطلاق – المكتبة الشاملة

[2] ٢٣٤٦٧ – قلنا: الكناية من غير نية أضعف من الصريح، فإذا انضمت النية إليها صارت أقوى من الصريح، لأن البينونة في لفظها، وليست هي لفظ الصريح، والنية إنما يحتاج إليها لتمييز اللفظ فيحمل على الطلاق دون غيره، وإذا تميز لم يحتج في الوقوع إلى النية. يبين ذلك: أن قوله: أنت طالق يفتقر عند مخالفينا إلى النية ليقع به الثلاث
ص4849 – كتاب التجريد للقدوري – مسألة ما يقع بكنايات الطلاق – المكتبة الشاملة