Will this count as indirect talaaq?

Fatwa ID: 03153

Answered by: Alimah Sabrina al-Faarsiyyah


One day fighting with my wife I said 'if you listen to my aunt you will go with her', but divorce was not my intention as because I was unaware about kinaya words of divorce so if I meant divorce I should use words divorce.

But now I'm thinking that maybe my wife listens again to my aunt and I get angry and divorce her I'm not 100% sure but maybe but it's just because that once I said her you will not listen to my aunt and she will listen again that is it but during the previous statement, divorce was not in my mind. Now if she listens to my aunt again she will automatically divorce with baain?


In The Name Of Allah, The Most-Merciful, The Most Kind

In reference to your question, it is important to mention that your question did not seem clear to me. Therefore, I will first mention how I understood your question, and thereafter provide you with an answer to the scenario that I understood.


You have mentioned that in the first instance, you said to your wife: “If you listen to my aunt, you will go with her.” This scenario will be analyzed by two things: the husband’s intention, and by the dalālatul hāl (the circumstance’s indication). In this instance, since you said that you are aware of kināyah [allusive] words, you did not intend divorce. Therefore, the outcome of what you said allusively will depend on, the type of setting in which you said the phrase: “you will go with her”. If you said this phrase while you were both arguing about divorce, then this phrase will be considered divorce unless you said this as a way to reject her request of divorce. If you were angry, it goes back to your intention that it was not for divorce. If it was not during a heated argument, rather in a normal case, divorce has not occurred.[1]

Thereafter, you said that now you are thinking that if your wife listens to your aunt again, you will get angry and maybe you will divorce her. I know that you have not written the word ‘will’ in your question, but your sentence structure implies that you are indicating the future tense. As such, someone intending to give divorce in the future will not occur.[2] If you are doubtful about the whole situation, then there is no consideration for wasāwis (doubts and whispers), and it will not constitute a divorce.[3]



Only Allāh Ta’ālā knows best

Written by Alimah Sabrina al-Faarsiyyah

Checked and approved by Mufti Mohammed Tosir Miah

Dārul Iftā Birmingham

[1]Raddul Muhtār 3/296-297, Dārul Fikr

بَابُ الْكِنَايَاتِ (كِنَايَتُهُ) عِنْدَ الْفُقَهَاءِ (مَا لَمْ يُوضَعْ لَهُ) أَيْ الطَّلَاقِ (وَاحْتَمَلَهُ) وَغَيْرَهُ (فَ) الْكِنَايَاتُ (لَاتَطْلُقُ بِهَا) قَضَاءً (إلَّا بِنِيَّةٍ أَوْ دَلَالَةِ الْحَالِ) وَهِيَ حَالَةُ مُذَاكَرَةِ الطَّلَاقِ أَوْ الْغَضَبِ،


Al-Fatāwā al-Hindiyyah 1/442, Al-Maktabah al-Faisal

وَالْأَحْوَالُ ثَلَاثَةٌ (حَالَةُ) الرِّضَا (وَحَالَةُ) مُذَاكَرَةِ الطَّلَاقِ بِأَنْ تَسْأَلَ هِيَ طَلَاقَهَا أَوْ غَيْرُهَا يَسْأَلُ طَلَاقَهَا (وَحَالَةُ) الْغَضَبِ فَفِي حَالَةِ الرِّضَا لَا يَقَعُ الطَّلَاقُ فِي الْأَلْفَاظِ كُلِّهَا إلَّا بِالنِّيَّةِ وَالْقَوْلُ قَوْلُ الزَّوْجِ فِي تَرْكِ النِّيَّةِ مَعَ الْيَمِينِ وَفِي حَالَةِ مُذَاكَرَةِ الطَّلَاقِ يَقَعُ الطَّلَاقُ فِي سَائِرِ الْأَقْسَامِ قَضَاءً إلَّا فِيمَا يَصْلُحُ جَوَابًا وَرَدَّا فَإِنَّهُ لَا يُجْعَلُ طَلَاقًا كَذَا فِي الْكَافِي وَفِي حَالَةِ الْغَضَبِ يُصَدَّقُ فِي جَمِيعِ ذَلِكَ لِاحْتِمَالِ الرَّدِّ وَالسَّبِّ إلَّا فِيمَا يَصْلُحُ لِلطَّلَاقِ وَلَا يَصْلُحُ لِلرَّدِّ وَالشَّتْمِ كَقَوْلِهِ اعْتَدِّي وَاخْتَارِي وَأَمْرُك بِيَدِك فَإِنَّهُ لَا يُصَدَّقُ فِيهَا كَذَا فِي الْهِدَايَةِ.

[2]Fatāwā Qādhi Khān 1/272, al-Maktabah al-Faisal

ولو قال أردت طلاقك، لا يقع.

[3]Ad-Da’ās, Al-Qawā’id al-Fiqhiyyah, pg.25, Dār Tirmidhi

لا عبرة للتوهم

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